KW is a 57 yyear with end-stage renal disease treated with peritoneal dialysis. She begins to notice that her dialysate fluid has become cloudy over the past few days, and she has been having nausea and vomiting. She has a past history of MRSA peritoneal infections. A CT scan of her abdomen reveals no abscesses. She has no allergies. Which one of the following is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic regimen for her?
Ceftriaxone administered intravenously
Vancomycin administered intraperitoneally
Gentamicin administered intraperitoneally
Ceftriaxone plus metronidazole administered intravenously