MJ is a 43-year-old male with a known history of IV drug abuse. He reports to the ER with complaints of fever > 38°C, night sweats, and weight loss. He is noted to have splinter hemorrhages in his fingernails, and Roth spots. Appropriately, drawn blood cultures are currently negative. His TTE is negative. Based on the above information and the Duke Criteria, which one of the following is true?